Articles by " Atul Tiwari"
Oct 29, 2012 - Medical Quiz    Comments Off

Psychiatry

Random 20 Questions

Question 1
Autistic disorder is characterized by all of the following, Except
A
Visual impairment
B
Lack of Social Interaction
C
Delayed development of Speech
D
Stereotypic movements
Question 2
Which of the following is not a cognitive error / dysfunction:
A
Catastrophic thinking
B
Arbitrary inference
C
Overgeneralization
D
Thought block
Question 3
All of the following are done in behavior therapy to increase a behavior except:
A
Punishment
B
Operant conditioning
C
Negative reinforcement
D
Reward
Question 4
All of the following are parts of cognitive behavior change technique except
A
Pre-contemplation
B
Consolidation
C
Action
D
Contemplation
Question 5
A 60 year man had undergone cardiac bypass surgery 2 days back. Now he started forgetting things and was not able to recall names and phone numbers of his relatives. What is the probable diagnosis?
A
Depression
B
Post traumatic psychosis
C
Cognitive dysfunction
D
Alzheimer's disease
Question 6
Alcoholic Paranoia is associated with:
A
Fixed delusions
B
Hallucinations
C
Drowsiness
D
Impulse Agitation
Question 7
A 60 year male is brought by his wife. He thinks that he had committed sins all through his life. He is very much depressed and has considered committing suicide but has not through hot do go about it. He had also attached sessions with a spiritual guru. He is not convinced by his wife that he has lead a pious life. He does not want to hear anything on the contrary. How will you treat him?
A
Antipsychotic + Anti depressant
B
Antidepressant with cognitive behavioural therapy
C
Guidance & recounselling with guru + Anti depressant
D
Anti depressant alone
Question 8
A 30 year old man since 2 months suspects that his wife is having an affair with his boss. He thinks his friend is also involved from abroad and is providing technology support. He thinks people talk ill about him. His friends tried to convince him but he is not convinced at all. Otherwise he is normal, he doesn't have any thought disorder or any other inappropriate behavior. The most likely diagnosis is :
A
Paranoid Personality disorder
B
Persistent delusion disorder
C
Schizophrenia
D
Acute and Transient psychosis
Question 9
A 25 year old lady presented with sadness, palpitation, loss of appetite and insomnia. There is no complaint of hopelessness, suicidal thoughts and there is no past history of any precipitating event. She is remarkably well in other areas of life. She is doing her office job normally and her social life is also normal. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?
A
GAD
B
Mixed anxiety depression
C
Adjustment disorder
D
Mild depressive episode
Question 10
A patient presents to the emergency department with self harm and indicates suicidal intent. Which of the following conditions does not warrant an immediate specialist assessment
A
Formal thought disorder
B
Acute Alcohol intoxication
C
Chronic Severe physical illness
D
Social isolation
Question 11
Patients suffering from which of the following disease as per ICD/DSM criteria are eligible for disability benefit as per National Trust Act?
A
Schizophrenia
B
Bipolar disorder
C
Dementia
D
Mental retardation
Question 12
Lithium is not used in treatment of which of the following?
A
Major depression
B
Vascular headache
C
Neutropenia
D
Generalized Anxiety disorder
Question 13
Modafinil is approved by FDA for treatment of all except:
A
Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS)
B
Shift work syndrome (SWS)
C
Narcolepsy
D
Lethargy in depression
Question 14
A 3 year old girl has normal developmental milestones except delay n speech.She has difficuly in concentration communication and relating to others and does not make friends but plays with herself. Likely diagnosis is:
A
ADHD
B
Autism
C
Specific learning disorder
D
Mental retardation
Question 15
Drugs of choice in Obsessive compulsive disorder is:
A
Imipramine
B
Fluoxetine
C
Alprazolam
D
Chlorpromazine
Question 16
Naltrexone is used in opioid dependene to:
A
Prevent respiratory depression
B
Treat withdrawal symptoms
C
Prevent relapse
D
Treatment of opioid overdose
Question 17
Most common substance abuse in India is:
A
Tobacao
B
Cannabis
C
Alcohol
D
Opium
Question 18
A young lady presents with repeated episodes of excessive eating followed by purging by use of laxatives.What is the diagnosis:
A
Bulimia nervosa
B
Binge eating
C
Schizophrenia
D
Anorexia nervosa
Question 19
Perseveration is:
A
Persistant and inappropriate repetition of the same thoughts
B
When a patient feels very distressed about it.
C
Characteristics of schizophrenia
D
Characteristics of obsessive compulsive disorder(OCD)
Question 20
One of the following usually differentiates hysterical symptoms from hypochondriacal symptoms:
A
Symptoms do not normally reflect understandable physiological and pathological machanism.
B
Physical symptoms are prominent which are not explained by organic factor
C
Personality traits are significant.
D
Symptoms run a chronic course
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Oct 29, 2012 - Medical Quiz    Comments Off

Radiology

Random 20 Questions

Question 1
Walls of the CT scanner room are coated with:
A
Lead
B
Glass
C
Tungsten
D
Iron
Question 2
The major difference between X-Rays and Light is
A
Energy
B
Mass
C
Speed
D
Type of wave
Question 3
Which of the following is the most ionizing radiation
A
Alpha
B
Beta
C
X Rays
D
Gamma
Question 4
Which of the following statements best describes 'Background Radiation'
A
Radiation in the background of nuclear reactors
B
Radiation in the background during radiological investigations
C
Radiation present constantly from natural sources
D
Radiation from nuclear fallout
Question 5
Which of the following best estimates the amount of radiation delivered to an organ in the radiation field
A
Absorbed dose
B
Equivalent dose
C
Effective dose
D
Exposure dose
Question 6
Which of the following statements about 'Stochastic effects' of radiation is true
A
Severity of effect is a function of dose
B
Probability of effect is a function of dose
C
It has a threshold
D
Erythema and cataract are common examples
Question 7
'Egg on Side' Appearance is seen in
A
Tricuspid Atresia
B
Tetralogy of fallot
C
Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC)
D
Transposition of great arteries
Question 8
All of the following statements about CT scan features of adrenal adenoma are true, Except
A
Calcification is Rare
B
Low Attenuation
C
Early enhancement with slow wash out of contrast
D
Regular margins
Question 9
A patient presents with acute renal failure and anuria. The USG is normal. Which of the following investigation will give best information regarding renal function.
A
Intravenous Pyelogram
B
Retrograde Pyelography
C
Antegrade Pyelography
D
DTPA scan
Question 10
A dense renogram is obtained by
A
Dehydrating the patient
B
Increasing the dose of contrast media
C
Rapid (Bolus) injection of dye
D
Using non ionic media
Question 11
A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries.CT brain showed no midline shift,but basal cisterns were compressed with multiple small hemorrhages.What is the diagnosis:
A
Cortical contusion
B
Cerebral laceration
C
Multiple infarcts
D
Diffuse axonal injuries
Question 12
A newborn presents with congestive heart failure,on examination has bulging anterior fontanellac with a bruit on ausculation. Transfontanellar USG shows a hypoechoic midline mass with dilated lateral ventricles.Most likely diagnosis is:
A
Medulloblastoma
B
Encephalocele
C
Vein of Galen malformation
D
Arachnoid cyst
Question 13
A 48 yr old woman comes with b/I progressive weakness of both lower limbs spasticity & mild impairment of respiratory movements.MRI shows an intradural mid-dorsal midine enhancing lesion.What is the diagnosis?
A
Intradural lipoma
B
Meningioma
C
Neuroenteric cyst
D
Dermoid cyst
Question 14
Which of the following feature of thyroid module on USG is not sugestive of malignancy?
A
Hyperechogenecity
B
Hypoechogenecity
C
Non-homogenous
D
Microcalcification
Question 15
Investigation of choice for a lesion of temporal bone:
A
CT
B
MRI
C
USG
D
Plain X-ray
Question 16
Gamma camera in Nuclear Medicine is used for
A
Organ imaging
B
Measuring the radioactivity
C
Monitoring the surface contamination
D
RIA
Question 17
In radionuclide imaging the most useful radio pharamaceutical for skeletal imaging is:
A
Gallium 67(67Ga)
B
Technetium-Sulphur-colloid(99m Tc-Sc)
C
Technetium-99m linked to Met6hylene
D
disphosphonate(99m Tc-MDP)
Question 18
Which one of the following radioisotope is not used as permanent implant:
A
Iodine-125
B
Palladium-103
C
Gold-198
D
Caesium-137
Question 19
The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as;
A
Are technique
B
Modulation
C
Gating
D
Shunting
Question 20
At t=0 there are 6x10[sup]23[/sup] radioactive atoms of a substance,which decay with a disintegration constant λ equal to 0.01/sec.What would be the initial decay rate?
A
6x10[sup]23[/sup]
B
6x10[sup]22[/sup]
C
6x10[sup]21[/sup]
D
6x10[sup]20[/sup]
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Oct 29, 2012 - Medical Quiz    Comments Off

Anaesthesia

Random 20 Questions

Question 1
A patient with bilirubin value of 8mg/dl and serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dl is planned for surgery. What is the muscle relaxant of choice in this patient
A
Vecuronium
B
Pancuronium
C
Atracurium
D
Rocuronium
Question 2
All of the following statements about neuromuscular blockage produced by succinylcholine are true, Except
A
No fade on Train of four stimulation
B
Fade on tetanic stimulation
C
No post tetanic facilitation
D
Train of four ratio > 0.4
Question 3
A 25 year old overweight female was given fentanyl pancuronium anesthesia for surgery. After surgery and extubation she was observed to have limited movement of the upper body and chest wall in the recovery room. She was conscious and alert but voluntary respiratory effort was limited. Her blood pressure and heart rate were normal. The likely diagnosis is:
A
Incomplete reversal of pancuronium
B
Pulmonary embolism
C
Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity
D
Respiratory depression
Question 4
A 27 year old female was brought to emergency department for acute abdominal pain following which she was shifted to the operation theatre for Laparotomy. A speedy intubation was performed but after the intubation, breath sounds were observed to be decreased on the left side and a high end tidal C02 was recorded. The likely diagnosis is:
A
Endotracheal tube blockage
B
Bronchospasm
C
Esophageal intubation
D
Endobronchial intubation
Question 5
The volarility of an anesthetic agent os directly proportional to lowering the flow in the portal vein, Portal flow is maximally reduced by:
A
Ether
B
Halothane
C
Isoflurane
D
Enflurane
Question 6
A yount boy has sickle cell trait.Which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated?
A
IV regional anaesthesia
B
Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach
C
Brachia plexus block by infraclavicular approach
D
Brachial plexus block by axillary approach
Question 7
Local anaesthesia causing methemoglobinemia:
A
Procaine
B
Prilocaine
C
Etiodicaine
D
Ropivacaine
Question 8
Which one of the following is the fastest acting inhalational agent?
A
Halothane
B
Isoflurane
C
Ether
D
Sevoflurane
Question 9
All of the following are the disadvantages of anesthetic agents causes a rise in the Intracranial pressure:
A
Induction is show
B
Irritant nature of ether increases salivary and bronchial sectetions
C
Cautery cannot be used
D
Affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias
Question 10
Which one of the following anaesthietic agents causes a rice in the Intracranial pressure:
A
Sevoflurane
B
Thiopentone sodium
C
Lignocaine
D
Propofol
Question 11
The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except:
A
ketamine
B
ondsteron
C
propofol
D
dexamethasone
Question 12
The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of following conditions expect:
A
In a difficult intubation
B
In cardiopulmonary resuscitation
C
In a child undergoing an elective/roution eye surgery
D
In a patient with tumour in the oral cavity
Question 13
The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a Spontaneously breathing infant during anaesthesia is:
A
Jackson rees' modification of Ayres'T piece
B
Mapleson A or Magill's circuit
C
Mapleson C or Waters' to and fro canister
D
Bains circuit
Question 14
The following modes of ventilation may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except:
A
Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV)
B
Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)
C
Pressure support ventilation (PSV)
D
Assist-control ventilation (ACV)
Question 15
A Lower Segment Caesarean section (LSCS) can be carried out under all the following techniques of anaesthsia except:
A
General anaesthesia
B
Spinal anaesthesia
C
Caudal anaesthesia
D
Combined spinal Epidural anaesthesia
Question 16
A child with bladder exstrophy and chronic renal failure.The Anesthesia of choice for the child while operating exstrophy is:
A
Atracurium
B
Miacurium
C
Pancuronium
D
Rocuronium
Question 17
Local Anesthetic first used clinically:
A
Procaine
B
Lignocaine
C
Bupivacaine
D
Cocaine
Question 18
55 year old female a known case of thryotoxicosis in control posted for abdomino perineal resection during surgery there was sudden drop in B.P. and end tidal CO[sub]2[/sub] decreased from 40 to 10 mmHg.On auscultation there was a mill wheel murmur,what is the diagnosis:
A
Thyroid storm
B
Bleeding
C
Hypoxia
D
Air embolism
Question 19
Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation?
A
Maintenance of a patent airway
B
To provide positive pressure ventilation
C
Pulmonary toilet
D
Pneumothorax
Question 20
Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action?
A
Atracurium
B
Vecuronium
C
Rocuronium
D
Doxacurium
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Oct 29, 2012 - Medical Quiz    Comments Off

Dermatology

Random 20 Questions

Question 1
A young lady presents with white lacy lesions in oral cavity and her proximal nail fold has extended onto the nail bed. What is the likely diagnosis
A
Psoriasis
B
Geographic tongue
C
Lichen planus
D
Candidiasis
Question 2
An otherwise healthy male presents with a creamy curd like white patch on the tongue. The probable diagnosis is
A
Candidiasis
B
Histoplasmosis
C
Lichen Planus
D
Aspergillosis
Question 3
A 17 year old girl with Acne has been taking a drug for the last two years. She now presents with blue black pigmentation of nails: The likely medication causing the above pigmentation is
A
Tetracycline
B
Minocycline
C
Doxycycline
D
Azithromycin
Question 4
Treatment of erythematous skin rash with multiple pus lakes in a pregnant woman is:
A
Corticosteroids
B
Retinoids
C
Methotrexate
D
Psoralen with PUVA
Question 5
Which of the following stains is used to study fungal morphology in tissue sections
A
PAS
B
Von- kossa
C
Alizarin Red
D
Masson's Trichrome
Question 6
Which of the following is NOT a primary skin disease?
A
Reiter's syndrome
B
Bowen's disease
C
Psoriasis
D
Lichen planus
Question 7
25 yr old male having fever & malaise since 2 weeks,arthritis of ankle joint and tender erythematous nodules over the shin.Diagnosis is:
A
Erythema nodosum
B
Hensen's disease
C
Weber-Christian disease
D
Urticarial vasculitis
Question 8
A 16 year old presented with saymptomatic multiple erythematous,annular lesions with a collarette of scales at the periphery of the lesions present on the trunk.The most likely diagnosis is:
A
Pityriasis versicolor
B
Pityriasis rosea
C
Pityriasis rosea
D
Pityriasis rubra pilaris
Question 9
All of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor except:
A
Selenium sulphide
B
Ketoconazole
C
Griseofulvin
D
Clotrimazole
Question 10
An 8-year old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 months history of an ill defined, hypopigmented slilghtly atrophic macule on the face.The most likely diagnosis is:
A
Pityriasis alba
B
Indeterminate leprosy
C
Morphoca
D
Calcium deficiency
Question 11
A-40-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of erythematous papulopustular lesions on the convexities of the face.There is a background of erythema and telangiectasisa. The most likely diagnosis in the patient is:
A
Acne vulgaris
B
Rosacea
C
Systemic lupus erythematosus
D
Polymorphic light eruption
Question 12
A 36-year-old factory worker developed itchy,annular scaly plaques in both groins.Application of a corticosteroid ointement led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. the most likely dignosis is:
A
Erythema annulare centrifugum
B
Granuloma annulare
C
Annular lichen planus
D
Tinea crutis
Question 13
A 27 year year old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever.The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation.The most likely diagnosis is:
A
Behcet's syndrome
B
Herpes genitalis
C
Fixed drug eruption
D
Pemphigus vulgaris
Question 14
The only definite indication for giving systemic corticosteroids in pustular psoriasis is:
A
Psoriatic enythroderma with pregnancy
B
Psoriasis in a patient with alcoholic cirrhosis
C
Moderate arthrits
D
Extensive lesions
Question 15
A 7 year old boy with boggy swelling of the scalp with multiple discharging sinuses with cervical lymphadenopathy with easily pluckable hair.What would be done for diagnosis?
A
Pus for culture
B
KOH mount
C
Biopsy
D
-
Question 16
Flaccid Bullac Iesions with oral mucosal lesion.The finding in immunofluoscence is:
A
Fish net I[sub]g[/sub]G in epidermis
B
Linear I[sub]g[/sub]G in dermo epidermal junction
C
Granular I1[sub]A[/sub]in dermal papillae
D
Linear 1[sub]A[/sub]in reticular dermis
Question 17
Sexually active males comes with complaints of recurrent ulcers over the glans which heals with hyperpigmentation probable diagnosis is:
A
Aphthous ulcer
B
Fixed drug eruptions
C
Herpes genitalis
D
Chlamydial infection
Question 18
All are dermatological manifestations of dermatomyositis except:
A
Gottron's patches
B
Mechanic's patches
C
Periungual telangiectasia
D
Salmon Rash
Question 19
A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis?
A
Slit-lamp examination of eye
B
Measurement of intraocular tension
C
Examination of fundus
D
Retinal artery angiography
Question 20
Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in:
A
Lichen planus
B
Psoriasis
C
Tinea unguium
D
Alopecia areata
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Oct 29, 2012 - Medical Quiz    Comments Off

Orthopedics

Random 20 Questions

Question 1
Lift off test is done to assess the function of:
A
Supraspinatus
B
Infraspinatus
C
Teres Minor
D
Subscapularis
Question 2
Which of the following statements about 'Menisci' is not true:
A
Medial meniscus is more mobile than lateral
B
Lateral meniscus covers more tibial articular surface than lateral
C
Medial meniscus is more commonly injured than lateral
D
Menisci are predominantly made up of Type I Collagen
Question 3
Median nerve lesion at the wrist causes all of the following, Except:
A
Thenar Atrophy
B
Weakness of Adductor Pollicis
C
Weakness of 1st and 2nd Lumbricals
D
Weakness of Flexor Pollicis Brevis
Question 4
Which of the following statements about changes in articular cartilage with aging is not true :
A
Total proteoglycan content is decreased
B
Synthesis of proteoglycans is decreased
C
Enzymatic degradation of proteoglycans is increased
D
Total water content of cartilage is decreased
Question 5
Metal on Metal articulation should be avoided in:
A
Osteonecrosis
B
Young female
C
Inflammatory arthritis
D
Revision surgery
Question 6
A patient developed breathlessness and chest pain, on second postoperative day after a total hip replacement. Echo- cardiography showed right ventricular dilatation and tricuspid regurgitation. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A
Acute MI
B
Pulmonary embolism
C
Hypotensive shock
D
Cardiac tamponade
Question 7
The characteristic triad of Klippel - Feil syndrome includes all of the following, Except
A
Short neck
B
Low hair line
C
Limited neck movements
D
Elevated scapula
Question 8
Progression of congenital scoliosis is least likely in which of the following vertebra anomalies
A
Fully segmented Hemivertebra
B
Wedge vertebra
C
Block vertebra
D
Unilateral unsegmented bar with Hemivertebra
Question 9
A patient involved in a road traffic accident presents with quadriparesis, sphincter disturbance, sensory level up to the upper border of sternum and a respiratory rate of 35/minute.The likely level of lesion is
A
C1-C2
B
C4-C5
C
T1-T2
D
T3-T4
Question 10
All of the following statements about synovial cell sarcoma, are true, Except
A
Originate from synovial lining
B
Occur more often at extra articular sites
C
Usually seen in patients less than 50 years of age
D
Knee and foot are common sites involved
Question 11
Hyperglycemia is associated with:
A
Multiple Myeloma
B
Ewing's sarcoma
C
Osteosarcoma
D
Chondrosarcoma
Question 12
Brown Tumor is seen in
A
Hypothyroidism
B
Hyperthyroidism
C
Hypoparathyroidism
D
Hyperparathyroidism
Question 13
Posterior glenohumeral instability can be tested by:
A
Jerk test
B
Crank test
C
Fulcrum test
D
Sulcus test
Question 14
Meralgin parestherica is due to involvement of:
A
Medical cutaneous nerve of thing
B
Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
C
Sural nerve
D
Femoral nerve
Question 15
Charactrrisic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia:
A
Thickened bone matrix
B
Cortical erosion
C
Ground glass appearance
D
Bone enlargement
Question 16
A 60 yr old man came with pain and swelling of right knee. Ahlback grade 2 osteoarthritic changes were found on investigation.What is the further management?
A
Arthroscopic washout
B
High tibial osteotomy
C
Total knee replacement
D
Conservative
Question 17
A 65 yrs old man with H/O back pain since 3 months. ESR is raised.On examination marded stiffness and mild restriction of chest movements is found.On x-ray,syndesmophytes are present in vertebrae.Diagnosis is:
A
Ankylosing spondylitis
B
Degenerative osteoartritis of spine
C
Ankylosing hyperosteosis
D
Lumbar cannal stenosis
Question 18
Synovial fluid-all are true except:
A
Secreted by Type A cells
B
Follows non newtonian fluid kinetics
C
Contains hyaluronic acid
D
Viscosity is variable
Question 19
A lady presents with right knee swelling.Aspiration was done in which CPPD crystals were obtained.Next best investigation is:
A
ANA
B
RF
C
CPK
D
TSH
Question 20
Major mineral of the bone is:
A
Calcite
B
Hydroxyapatite
C
Calcium oxide
D
Calcium carbonate
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Oct 29, 2012 - Medical Quiz    Comments Off

Obstetrics & Gynaecology

Random 20 Questions

Question 1
Which of the following methods for assessment of female fertility during a menstrual cycle can best predict the timing of ovulation
A
Basal Body Temperature (BBT)
B
Fern Test
C
Spinnbarkeit phenomenon
D
Hormonal study
Question 2
Primary Amenorrhea with absent uterus, normal breasts and scant pubic hair is seen in
A
Mayer Rokitanski Kuster Hauser syndrome
B
Turner's syndrome
C
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
D
Noonan syndrome
Question 3
Primary Amenorrhea with normal ovaries normal external genitalia and normal breasts is seen in:
A
Mayer-Rokitanski- Kuster - Hauser Syndrome
B
Turner's syndrome
C
Androgen Insensitivity syndrome
D
Noonan syndrome
Question 4
Which of the following condition present with absence of both Mullerian and Wolffian duct structures
A
Antimullerian Hormone deficiency
B
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
C
FSH Receptor defect
D
Ovotesticular syndrome
Question 5
A lady presented with secondary amenorrhea 6 months after having an abortion. Her FSH levels were measured as 6 mIU/ml what is the most probable diagnosis.
A
Pituitary failure
B
Ovarian failure
C
Fresh pregnancy
D
Uterine synechiae
Question 6
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with carcinoma cervix
A
HPV 16
B
HPV 18
C
HPV 33
D
HPV 35
Question 7
Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most useful for which of the following gynecological malignancies
A
Carcinoma Endometrium
B
Carcinoma cervix
C
Carcinoma vulva
D
Carcinoma vagina
Question 8
A 40 year old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology on PAP smear suggestive of CIN III (HSIL). The next, best step in management is:
A
Hysterectomy
B
Colposcopy and LEEP
C
Colposcopy and Cryotherapy
D
Conization
Question 9
A 52 year old lady presents with constant leakage of urine and dysuria two weeks after a complicated total abdominal hysterectomy. A diagnosis of Vesicovaginal fistula is suspected. The most important test for the diagnosis is:
A
Triple Swab Test
B
Urine culture
C
Cystoscopy
D
IVP
Question 10
A 52 year old lady with a vesicovaginal fistula after abdominal hysterectomy is not responding to conservative management. Most useful / important next investigation is:
A
Triple Swab Test
B
Urine culture
C
Cystoscopy
D
IVP
Question 11
Which of the following statements about partial mole is false:
A
Usually associated with Triploidy
B
Rarely causes Persistant Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia
C
Usually present as Missed Abortions
D
Can be reliably diagnosed by USG in early gestation
Question 12
Conversion of a complete hydatiform mole into choriocarcinoma is indicated by all, except:
A
Plateau HCG levels
B
Enlarged Uterine size
C
Persistance of theca Lutein cysts
D
Suburethral Nodule
Question 13
Conversion of a complete hydaliform mole into invasive mole is indicated by all of the following except:
A
Plateau HCG
B
Enlarged Uterine size
C
Persistance of Theca-lutein cysts
D
Suburethral nodule
Question 14
All of the following are associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, Except
A
Ovarian carcinoma
B
Endometrial carcinoma
C
Insulin Resistance
D
Osteoporosis
Question 15
Which of the following is the most specific marker for Neural Tube Defects
A
Actylcholinesterase
B
Pseudocholinesterase
C
Alpha feto protein (AFP)
D
Human chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG)
Question 16
AFP is raised in:
A
Teratoma
B
Yolk sac tumor
C
Choriocarcinoma
D
Dysgerminoma
Question 17
Increased Nuchal Translucency at 14 weeks gestation is seen in:
A
Turner's syndrome
B
Down's syndrome
C
Hydrocephalus
D
Skeletal Dysplasia
Question 18
Non Immune Hydrops Fetalis is caused by:
A
CMV
B
Parvovirus
C
HSV
D
HIV
Question 19
Weight gain in pregnancy depends on all of the following factors, Except
A
Socioeconomic status
B
Prepregnancy weight
C
Smoking
D
Ethinicity
Question 20
Which of the following statements about 'Multiple Pregnancies' is true:
A
Fetuses of same gender excludes dichorionicity
B
Twin Peak Sign is seen in dichorionicity
C
Thick separating membrane is a feature of monochorionic twins
D
Chorionicity can be reliably detected only after 16 weeks of gestation
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Oct 29, 2012 - Medical Quiz    Comments Off

Pediatrics

Random 20 Questions

Question 1
Health status of a child under 5 years of age will be adversely affected by all of the following, Except:
A
Malnutrition
B
Low birth weight
C
Maternal Hb of Ilgm%
D
Infections
Question 2
A neonate presented with fever, lethargy, abdominal distension, vomiting and constipation. Clinically he was diagnosed as volvulus neonatarum with suspected perforation. Best investigation would be
A
Plain X-ray
B
Barium enema
C
Upper GI endoscopy
D
Barium meal follow through
Question 3
A Ten year old boy presents to the pediatric emergency unit with seizures. Blood pressure in the upper extremity measured as 200/140 mm Hg. Femoral pulses were not palpable. The most likely diagnosis amongst the following is:
A
Takayasu Aortoarteritis
B
Renal parenchymal disease
C
Grandmal seiures
D
Coarctation of Aorta
Question 4
A seven year old asymptomatic girl is found to have persistant hypertension. There is no significant history and urine examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause
A
Essential Hypertension
B
Renal Parenchymal Disease
C
Polycystic Kidney Disease
D
Coarctation of Aorta
Question 5
A child presented with intermittent episodes of left sided flank pain. Ultrasonography reveals a large hydronephrosis with dilated renal pelvis and cortical thinning with a normal ureter. Kidney differential function was observed to be 19% which of the following is the best management:
A
Nephrectomy
B
Pyeloplasty
C
External Drainage
D
Endopylostomy
Question 6
A Child presents with hepatomegaly and hypoglycemia. There is no improvement in blood sugar even after administration of epinephrine. What is the likely diagnosis:
A
Von Girke's Disease
B
Anderson's Disease
C
Pompe's Disease
D
Me Ardle's Disease
Question 7
All of the following factors are associated with a substantially greater risk of developing epilepsy after febrile seizures, Except
A
Complex Febrile seizures
B
Early age of onset
C
Developmental abnormalities
D
Positive family History of Epilepsy
Question 8
A child presents with short episodes of vacant stare several times a day. The vacant episode begins abruptly and the child remains unresponsive during the episode. There is no associated history of aura or postictal confusion and the child is otherwise normal. The likely diagnosis is
A
Grandmal seizures
B
Absence seizures
C
Complex partial seizures
D
Day dreaming
Question 9
Which of the following drugs is not used in Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME).
A
Topiramate
B
Zonisamide
C
Carbamezapine
D
Valproate
Question 10
A child presents to the clinic with history of seizures and mental retardation. Clinical examination reveals multiple hypopigmented macules. What is the likely diagnosis
A
Tuberous Sclerosis
B
Neurofibromatosis
C
Sturge Weber Syndrome
D
Linear epidermal nevus syndrome
Question 11
Which of the following is the most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children
A
Mumps
B
Arbovirus
C
HSV
D
Enterovirus
Question 12
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks:
A
Meningococci
B
Pneumococci
C
Hemophilus Influenza
D
E. Coli
Question 13
A two year old child with a long history of purulent nasal discharge & fever, now presents with conjunctival congestion and edema. His fever is 102 /103 F and WBC count 12,000. The culture of eye discharge was negative. X-rays show opacification of ethmoid sinus. Which of the following should be the next step in evaluating this patient.
A
CT Scan
B
Urine Culture
C
Blood culture
D
Repeat culture of eye discharge
Question 14
A boy presented with weakness in lower limbs, calf hypertrophy, positive Gower's sign and an elevated CPK value of 10,000. The most likely diagnosis is:
A
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
B
Spinal Muscular Atrophy
C
Myotonia congenita
D
Myotonic Dystrophy
Question 15
Primary metabolic bone disorder in scurvy is:
A
Decreased mineralization
B
Decreased osteoid matrix formation
C
Increased bone resorption
D
Decreased bone mass with normal mineralization and osteoid formation
Question 16
Bart's hydrops fetalis is lethal because:
A
Hb Bart's cannot bind oxygen
B
The excess globin from insoluble precipitates
C
Hb Bart's cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues
D
Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta
Question 17
The coagulation profile in a 13-year old girl with Menorrhagia having von Willebrands disease is:
A
Isolated prolonged PTT with a normal PT
B
Isolated prolonged PT with a normal PTT
C
Prolongation of both PT and PTT
D
Prolongation of thrombin time
Question 18
The most common leukocytoclatic vasculitis affecting children is:
A
Takayasu disease
B
Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome(Kawasaki disease)
C
Henoch Schonelin purpura
D
Polyarteritis nodosa
Question 19
Diagnosis of beta Thalassemia is established by:
A
NESTROFT Test
B
Hb A1 C estimation
C
Hb electrophoresis
D
Target cells in peripheral smear
Question 20
Eisenmenger syndrome is characterized by all except:
A
Return of left ventricle &right venticle to normal size
B
Pulmonary veins not distended
C
Pruning of peridpheral pulmonary arteries
D
Dilatation of central pulmonary arteries
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Oct 29, 2012 - Medical Quiz    Comments Off

Surgery

Random 20 Questions

Question 1
Lord's Plication is done for:
A
Inguinal Hernia
B
Testicular cancer
C
Hydrocele
D
Testicular varices
Question 2
Which of the following stones is hard to break by ESWL
A
Calcium Oxalate Monohydrate
B
Calcium Oxalate Dihydrate
C
Uric acid
D
Struvite
Question 3
A 50 year old female is admitted with abdominal pain and anuria. Radiological studies revealed bilateral impacted ureteric stones with hydronephrosis. Urine analysis showed RBCs with pus cells in urine. Serum creatinine level was 16 mg/dl and urea level was 200 mmol/l which of the following should be the immediate treatment
A
Hemodialysis
B
'J' stent drainage
C
Lithotripsy
D
Ureteroscopic removal of stones
Question 4
What complication should one expect when PCNL is done through 11th intercostals space?
A
Hydrothorax
B
Hematuria
C
Damage to colon
D
Ramnants fragments
Question 5
Which of the following is the most common renal vascular anomaly
A
Supernumerary renal arteries
B
Supernumerary renal veins
C
Double Renal arteries
D
Double Renal veins
Question 6
First autologous renal transplantation was done by
A
Hardy
B
Kavosis
C
Higgins
D
Studor
Question 7
Most common site of urethral carcinoma in men is:
A
Bulbomembranous urethra
B
Penile urethra
C
Prostatic urethra
D
Fossa Navicularis
Question 8
Best time for surgery of undescended testis is:
A
Just after birth
B
6 months of age
C
12 months of age
D
24 months of age
Question 9
The Grayhack shunt is established between
A
Corpora cavernoso and corporo spongiosa
B
Corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein
C
Corpora cavernosa and dorsal vein
D
Corpora cavernosa and glans
Question 10
An adult presented with hemetemesis and upper abdominal pain. Endoscopy revealed a growth at the pyloric antrum of the stomach. CT scan showed growth involving the pyloric antrum without infiltration or invasion into surrounding structures and no evidence of distant metastasis. At Laparotomy neoplastic growth was observed to involve the posterior wall of stomach and the pancreas extending 6 cm up to tail of pancreas. What will be the most appropriate surgical management
A
Closure of the abdomen
B
Antrectomy and vagotomy
C
Partial Gastrectomy + Distal pancreatectomy
D
Partial Gastrectomy + Distal pancreatectomy + splenectomy
Question 11
All of the following about Gastrointestinal Carcinoid tumors are true, Except
A
Small intestine and appendix account for almost 60% of all gastrointestinal carcinoid.
B
Rectum is spared
C
5 year survival for carcinoid tumors is > 60%
D
Appendicial carcinoids are more commin in females than males.
Question 12
A young male patient presents with complete rectal prolapse. The surgery of choice is
A
Abdominal Rectopexy
B
Delerome's procedure
C
Anterior resection
D
Goodsall's procedure
Question 13
Treatment of choice for annular pancreas is
A
Division of pancreas
B
Duodenoduodenostomy
C
Duodenojejunostomy
D
Roux-en-Y loop
Question 14
A lady presented with recurrent attacks of giddiness and abdominal pain since three months. Endoscopy was normal. Her fasting blood glucose was 40 mg % and insulin levels were elevated. CT abdomen showed a well defined 8 nun enhancing lesion in the head of pancreas, with no other abnormal findings. What should be the treatment plan for this patient.
A
Whipple's operation
B
Enucleation
C
Enucleation with radiotherapy
D
Administration of streptozotocin
Question 15
According to the Bismuth / Strasberg classification 'Cystic blowout' is classified as:
A
Type A
B
Type B
C
Type C
D
Type D
Question 16
In orthotropic liver transplantation, which is the best way to get bile drainage in donor liver ?
A
Donor bile duct with recipient bile duct or Roux en Y choledochojejunostomy
B
Donor bile duct with duodenum of recipient
C
Donor bile duct with jejunum of recipient
D
External drainage for few days followed by choledochojejunostomy
Question 17
Most common cysts of the spleen are:
A
Hydatid cyst
B
Dermatoid cyst
C
Pseudocyst
D
Lymphangioma
Question 18
A patient presents with fever for 3 weeks. On examination he is observed to have Splenomegaly. Ultrasonography reveals a hypoechoic shadow in spleen near the hilum. Gram negative bacilli are isolated on blood culture. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism:
A
Cytomegalovirus
B
Toxoplasmosis
C
Salmonella
D
Lymphoma virus
Question 19
A patient with ITP has a platelet count of 50,000 and is being planned for splenectomy. What is the best time for platelet infusion in this patient?
A
2 hours before surgery
B
At the time of skin incision
C
After ligating the splenic artery
D
Immediately after removal of spleen
Question 20
Most common cause of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm is:
A
Atherosclerosis
B
Trauma
C
Syphilis
D
Vasculitis
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Oct 29, 2012 - Medical Quiz    Comments Off

Medicine

Random 20 Questions

Question 1
A 16 year old young girl presents with a history of fatiguability weakness and lethargy. Complete Blood picture (CBC) reveals Haemoglobin of 7.0, MCV of 70, MCH of 20 pg/cell and Red cell Distribution Width (RDW) of 20. The most likely diagnosis is:
A
Iron Deficiency Anemia
B
Thalassemia Minor
C
Thalassemia Major
D
Sickle cell trait
Question 2
Which of the following is a major criteria for diagnosis of poycythemia vera
A
Presence of JAK-2 mutation
B
Low Erythropoetin levels
C
High Leucocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (increased LAP score)
D
Thrombocytosis
Question 3
All of the following statements about Fanconi's anemia are true, Except.
A
Autosomal dominant inheritance
B
Hypocellular Bone Marrow
C
Congenital Anomalies
D
Usually normocytic / macrocytic cell morphology
Question 4
Which of the following investigations should be done immediately to best confirm a non matched blood transfusion reaction
A
Indirect Coomb' s test
B
Direct Coomb's test
C
Antibody in patient's serum
D
Antibody in donor serum
Question 5
Bence Jones proteinuria may be seen in:
A
Alpha heavy chain disease
B
Gamma heavy chain disease
C
'Mu' heavy chain disease
D
Epsilon heavy chain disease
Question 6
Bence Jones proteins are derived from:
A
Alpha Globulins
B
Beta Globulins
C
Gamma Globulins
D
Delta Globulins
Question 7
All of the following statements about third Heart sound (S3) are true, except
A
Occurs due to rapid filling of the ventricles during atrial systole
B
Seen in in Constrictive Pericarditis
C
Seen in Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)
D
Seen in Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
Question 8
A young asymptomatic female is observed to have a Midsystolic Click on routine examination. Valves are likely to show
A
Myxomatous degeneration
B
Aschoff bodies
C
Calcific degeneration
D
Ruptured chordae tendinae
Question 9
Beck's Triad is seen in:
A
Constrictive Pericarditis
B
Cardiac tamponade
C
Right ventricular Myocardial Infarction (RVMI)
D
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
Question 10
Accelerated Idioventricular Rhythm (AIVR) is the most common arrhythmia associated with:
A
Dilated cardiomyopathy
B
Myocardial Reperfusion
C
Digitalis Intoxicatiun
D
Myocarditis
Question 11
Streptokinase and Urokinase are contraindicated in:
A
Intracranial malignancy
B
Pulmonary Embolism
C
AV fistula
D
Thrombophlebitis
Question 12
A patient presents with following parameters pH 7.5, pCO2 30 mmHg, pO2 102 mmHg and HC03 16 meq/l. Which of the following correctly describes the compensatory mechanism:
A
Respiratory Alkalosis
B
Metabolic Alkalosis
C
Respiratory Acidosis
D
Metabolic Acidosis
Question 13
A 29 year old anxious lady presents with a history of progressive breathlessness and exercise intolerance since four months. Her FVC is 90% and FEV1 / FVC is 86%. Oxygen saturation after exercise was observed to drop from 92% to 86%. What is the likely diagnosis :
A
Primary alveolar hypoventilation
B
Primary pulmonary hypertension
C
Anxiety disorder
D
Interstitial lung disease
Question 14
A truck driver presented with history of fever since four weeks, and dry cough. He also gives a history of weight loss of about 10 kg. X-ray shows bilateral reticulonodular infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is:
A
Tuberculosis
B
Pneumocystis carinii Pneumonia
C
Pneumococcal pneumonia
D
Interstitial Lung Disease
Question 15
Cavitatory lesions in lung are seen in
A
Primary pulmonary Tuberculosis
B
Staphylococcal pneumonia
C
Pneumoconiosis
D
Interstitial Lung disease
Question 16
Which of the following statements about lung carcinoma is true
A
Squammous cell variant accounts for 70% of all lung cancers
B
Oat cell variant typically present with cavitation
C
Oat cell variant is typically associated with hilar adenopathy
D
Adenocarcinoma variant is typically central in location
Question 17
Pre-Renal Azotemia is characterized by all of the following. Except
A
Fractional Excretion of Na < 1%
B
Urinary osmolality > 500 mosm/kg
C
Urinary sodium concentration > 40 meqll
D
Reversible with replacement fluids
Question 18
Plasma urea / creatinine ratio of 20 : 1 may be seen in
A
Rbabdomyolysis
B
Ureteric calculi
C
Pre-renal failure
D
Chronic Glomerulonephritis
Question 19
A lady presented with non progressive dysphagia only for solids. Barium study showed proximal esophageal dilatation with distal constriction. The most likely diagnosis is.
A
Peptic Stricture
B
Carcinoma Esophagus
C
Achalasia Cardia
D
Lower Esophageal Ring
Question 20
A young girl presents with abdominal pain and a recent change in bowel habit, with passage of mucus in stool. There is no associated blood in stool and symptoms are increased with stress. The most likely diagnosis is.
A
Irritable bowel syndrome
B
Ulcerative Colitis
C
Crohn's disease
D
Amebiasis
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ENT

Random 20 Questions

Question 1
All of the following statements about sodium in otosclerosis are true, Except
A
Acts by inhibiting proteolytic enzymes in cochlea
B
Acts by inhibiting osteoblastic activity
C
Is contraindicated in chronic nephritis
D
Is indicated in patients with a positive Schwartze sign
Question 2
Vestibular Schwannoma arises most frequently from:
A
Superior Vestibular Nerve
B
Inferior Vestibular Nerve
C
Cochlear Nerve
D
Facial Nerve
Question 3
Otoacoustic emissions arise from
A
Inner hair cells
B
Outer hair cells
C
Organ of corti
D
Both outer and inner hair cells
Question 4
All of the following statements about Nasopharyngeal carcinoma are true, Except
A
Bimodal age distribution
B
Nasopharyngectomy with Radical Neck dissection is the treatment of choice
C
IgA antibody to EBV is observed
D
Squammous cell carcinoma is the most common histological subtype
Question 5
All of the following statements about CSF leak are true, Except
A
Most common site of CSF leak is fovea ethmoidalis
B
Beta is transferring estimation is highly specific for diagnosis of
C
Fluorescin Dye can be used intratheclly for diagnosis of site of leak
D
MRI (Gladilonium chanced) Tl images are best for diagnosis of site of leak
Question 6
All of the following are Extrinsic Laryngeal Membranes / Ligaments, Except
A
Hyoepiglottic
B
Cricothyroid
C
Cricotracheal
D
Thyrohyoid
Question 7
Which of the following structures is not seen on bronchoscopy
A
Trachea
B
Vocal cords
C
Subcarinal lymph nodes
D
First segmental division of bronchi
Question 8
A child presents with stridor, barking cough and difficulty in breathing since 2-3 days. He has fever and elevated leukocyte count. All of the following statements about his condition are true, Except
A
Subglottis stenosis and hypopharyngeal dilatation may be seen on X-rays
B
Boys are more commonly affected than girls
C
Symptoms are predominantly caused by involvement of the subglottis
D
Antibiotics form the mainstay of treatment.
Question 9
Drug of choice in Laryngeal stenosis is:
A
Cyclophosphamide
B
Doxorubicin
C
Adriamycin
D
Mitomycin C
Question 10
Which of the following Lasers is most commonly used in Laryngeal surgery
A
CO2 laser
B
Nd YAG laser
C
Argon laser
D
KTP laser
Question 11
Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through:
A
Cochlear aqueduct
B
Endolymphatic sac
C
Cestibular aqueduct
D
Hyrtle fissure
Question 12
Most common site for CSF rhinorrhoea is:
A
Ethmoidal sinuses
B
Maxillary sinuses
C
Frontal sinus
D
Tegmen tympani
Question 13
Endolymph in the inner ear:
A
Is a filterate of blood serum
B
Is secreted by Stria vascularis
C
Is secreted by Basilar membrane
D
Is secreted by Hair cells
Question 14
Use of seligel's speculum during examinition of the ear provides all except:
A
Magnification
B
Assessment of movement of the tympanic membrane
C
Removal of foreign body from the ear
D
As applicator for the powdered antibiotic of ear
Question 15
All are true for Gradenigo's syndrome except
A
It is associated with conductive hearing loss
B
It is caused by an abscess in petrous apex
C
It leads to involvement of the cranial nerves V and VI
D
It is characterized by retro-orbital pain
E
None
Question 16
The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhoea is:
A
Sphenoid sinus
B
Frontal sinus
C
Cribriform plate
D
Tegment tympani
Question 17
The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is:
A
Hoarseness
B
Haemoptysis
C
Cervical lymph nodes
D
Stridor
Question 18
Androphonia can be corrected by doing:
A
Type 1 Thyroplasty
B
Type 2 Thyroplasty
C
Type 3 Thyroplasty
D
Type 4 Thyroplasty
Question 19
Acoustic neuroma commonly arises from:
A
Superior division of vestibular nerve
B
Inferior division of vestibular nerve
C
Cochlear nerve
D
VIIth nerve
Question 20
Radiotherapy is treatment of choice for:
A
Nasopharyngeal C[sub]a[/sub]T[sub]3[/sub]N1
B
Supraglottic C[sub]a[/sub]T[sub]3[/sub]N0
C
Glottic C[sub]a[/sub] T[sub]3[/sub]N1
D
Subglottic C[sub]a[/sub] T[sub]3[/sub]N0
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