Oct 29, 2012 - Medical Quiz    Comments Off

Obstetrics & Gynaecology

Random 20 Questions

Question 1
Which of the following methods for assessment of female fertility during a menstrual cycle can best predict the timing of ovulation
A
Basal Body Temperature (BBT)
B
Fern Test
C
Spinnbarkeit phenomenon
D
Hormonal study
Question 2
Primary Amenorrhea with absent uterus, normal breasts and scant pubic hair is seen in
A
Mayer Rokitanski Kuster Hauser syndrome
B
Turner's syndrome
C
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
D
Noonan syndrome
Question 3
Primary Amenorrhea with normal ovaries normal external genitalia and normal breasts is seen in:
A
Mayer-Rokitanski- Kuster - Hauser Syndrome
B
Turner's syndrome
C
Androgen Insensitivity syndrome
D
Noonan syndrome
Question 4
Which of the following condition present with absence of both Mullerian and Wolffian duct structures
A
Antimullerian Hormone deficiency
B
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
C
FSH Receptor defect
D
Ovotesticular syndrome
Question 5
A lady presented with secondary amenorrhea 6 months after having an abortion. Her FSH levels were measured as 6 mIU/ml what is the most probable diagnosis.
A
Pituitary failure
B
Ovarian failure
C
Fresh pregnancy
D
Uterine synechiae
Question 6
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with carcinoma cervix
A
HPV 16
B
HPV 18
C
HPV 33
D
HPV 35
Question 7
Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most useful for which of the following gynecological malignancies
A
Carcinoma Endometrium
B
Carcinoma cervix
C
Carcinoma vulva
D
Carcinoma vagina
Question 8
A 40 year old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology on PAP smear suggestive of CIN III (HSIL). The next, best step in management is:
A
Hysterectomy
B
Colposcopy and LEEP
C
Colposcopy and Cryotherapy
D
Conization
Question 9
A 52 year old lady presents with constant leakage of urine and dysuria two weeks after a complicated total abdominal hysterectomy. A diagnosis of Vesicovaginal fistula is suspected. The most important test for the diagnosis is:
A
Triple Swab Test
B
Urine culture
C
Cystoscopy
D
IVP
Question 10
A 52 year old lady with a vesicovaginal fistula after abdominal hysterectomy is not responding to conservative management. Most useful / important next investigation is:
A
Triple Swab Test
B
Urine culture
C
Cystoscopy
D
IVP
Question 11
Which of the following statements about partial mole is false:
A
Usually associated with Triploidy
B
Rarely causes Persistant Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia
C
Usually present as Missed Abortions
D
Can be reliably diagnosed by USG in early gestation
Question 12
Conversion of a complete hydatiform mole into choriocarcinoma is indicated by all, except:
A
Plateau HCG levels
B
Enlarged Uterine size
C
Persistance of theca Lutein cysts
D
Suburethral Nodule
Question 13
Conversion of a complete hydaliform mole into invasive mole is indicated by all of the following except:
A
Plateau HCG
B
Enlarged Uterine size
C
Persistance of Theca-lutein cysts
D
Suburethral nodule
Question 14
All of the following are associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, Except
A
Ovarian carcinoma
B
Endometrial carcinoma
C
Insulin Resistance
D
Osteoporosis
Question 15
Which of the following is the most specific marker for Neural Tube Defects
A
Actylcholinesterase
B
Pseudocholinesterase
C
Alpha feto protein (AFP)
D
Human chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG)
Question 16
AFP is raised in:
A
Teratoma
B
Yolk sac tumor
C
Choriocarcinoma
D
Dysgerminoma
Question 17
Increased Nuchal Translucency at 14 weeks gestation is seen in:
A
Turner's syndrome
B
Down's syndrome
C
Hydrocephalus
D
Skeletal Dysplasia
Question 18
Non Immune Hydrops Fetalis is caused by:
A
CMV
B
Parvovirus
C
HSV
D
HIV
Question 19
Weight gain in pregnancy depends on all of the following factors, Except
A
Socioeconomic status
B
Prepregnancy weight
C
Smoking
D
Ethinicity
Question 20
Which of the following statements about 'Multiple Pregnancies' is true:
A
Fetuses of same gender excludes dichorionicity
B
Twin Peak Sign is seen in dichorionicity
C
Thick separating membrane is a feature of monochorionic twins
D
Chorionicity can be reliably detected only after 16 weeks of gestation
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All Questions

Question 1
Which of the following methods for assessment of female fertility during a menstrual cycle can best predict the timing of ovulation
A
Basal Body Temperature (BBT)
B
Fern Test
C
Spinnbarkeit phenomenon
D
Hormonal study
Question 2
Primary Amenorrhea with absent uterus, normal breasts and scant pubic hair is seen in
A
Mayer Rokitanski Kuster Hauser syndrome
B
Turner's syndrome
C
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
D
Noonan syndrome
Question 3
Primary Amenorrhea with normal ovaries normal external genitalia and normal breasts is seen in:
A
Mayer-Rokitanski- Kuster - Hauser Syndrome
B
Turner's syndrome
C
Androgen Insensitivity syndrome
D
Noonan syndrome
Question 4
Which of the following condition present with absence of both Mullerian and Wolffian duct structures
A
Antimullerian Hormone deficiency
B
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
C
FSH Receptor defect
D
Ovotesticular syndrome
Question 5
A lady presented with secondary amenorrhea 6 months after having an abortion. Her FSH levels were measured as 6 mIU/ml what is the most probable diagnosis.
A
Pituitary failure
B
Ovarian failure
C
Fresh pregnancy
D
Uterine synechiae
Question 6
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with carcinoma cervix
A
HPV 16
B
HPV 18
C
HPV 33
D
HPV 35
Question 7
Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most useful for which of the following gynecological malignancies
A
Carcinoma Endometrium
B
Carcinoma cervix
C
Carcinoma vulva
D
Carcinoma vagina
Question 8
A 40 year old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology on PAP smear suggestive of CIN III (HSIL). The next, best step in management is:
A
Hysterectomy
B
Colposcopy and LEEP
C
Colposcopy and Cryotherapy
D
Conization
Question 9
A 52 year old lady presents with constant leakage of urine and dysuria two weeks after a complicated total abdominal hysterectomy. A diagnosis of Vesicovaginal fistula is suspected. The most important test for the diagnosis is:
A
Triple Swab Test
B
Urine culture
C
Cystoscopy
D
IVP
Question 10
A 52 year old lady with a vesicovaginal fistula after abdominal hysterectomy is not responding to conservative management. Most useful / important next investigation is:
A
Triple Swab Test
B
Urine culture
C
Cystoscopy
D
IVP
Question 11
Which of the following statements about partial mole is false:
A
Usually associated with Triploidy
B
Rarely causes Persistant Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia
C
Usually present as Missed Abortions
D
Can be reliably diagnosed by USG in early gestation
Question 12
Conversion of a complete hydatiform mole into choriocarcinoma is indicated by all, except:
A
Plateau HCG levels
B
Enlarged Uterine size
C
Persistance of theca Lutein cysts
D
Suburethral Nodule
Question 13
Conversion of a complete hydaliform mole into invasive mole is indicated by all of the following except:
A
Plateau HCG
B
Enlarged Uterine size
C
Persistance of Theca-lutein cysts
D
Suburethral nodule
Question 14
All of the following are associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, Except
A
Ovarian carcinoma
B
Endometrial carcinoma
C
Insulin Resistance
D
Osteoporosis
Question 15
Which of the following is the most specific marker for Neural Tube Defects
A
Actylcholinesterase
B
Pseudocholinesterase
C
Alpha feto protein (AFP)
D
Human chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG)
Question 16
AFP is raised in:
A
Teratoma
B
Yolk sac tumor
C
Choriocarcinoma
D
Dysgerminoma
Question 17
Increased Nuchal Translucency at 14 weeks gestation is seen in:
A
Turner's syndrome
B
Down's syndrome
C
Hydrocephalus
D
Skeletal Dysplasia
Question 18
Non Immune Hydrops Fetalis is caused by:
A
CMV
B
Parvovirus
C
HSV
D
HIV
Question 19
Weight gain in pregnancy depends on all of the following factors, Except
A
Socioeconomic status
B
Prepregnancy weight
C
Smoking
D
Ethinicity
Question 20
Which of the following statements about 'Multiple Pregnancies' is true:
A
Fetuses of same gender excludes dichorionicity
B
Twin Peak Sign is seen in dichorionicity
C
Thick separating membrane is a feature of monochorionic twins
D
Chorionicity can be reliably detected only after 16 weeks of gestation
Question 21
Treatment of choice for Intrahepatic Cholestasis in Pregnancy is:
A
Cholestyramine
B
Ursodiol (Ursodeoxycholic acid)
C
Corticosteroids (Dexamethasone)
D
Antihistaminics
Question 22
All of the following are cardiac contraindications to pregnancy, Except
A
Eisenmenger's syndrome
B
Pulmonary Hypertension
C
Coarctation of Aorta
D
WPW syndrome
Question 23
The drug of choice to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy is:
A
Tetracycline
B
Doxycycline
C
Erythromycin
D
Azithromycin
Question 24
The drug of choice to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy is:
A
Tetracycline
B
Doxycycline
C
Erythromycin
D
Penicillin
Question 25
Which of the following conditions is associated with polyhydramnios
A
Posterior Urethral Valves
B
Cleft palate
C
Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia
D
Bladder Exstrophy
Question 26
A lady presented with features of threatened abortion at 32 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following statements with regard to antibiotic usage is not correct
A
Antibiotic Prophylaxis even with unruptured membranes
B
Metronidazole if asymptomatic but significant bacterial vaginosis
C
Antibiotics if asymptomatic but significant bacteremia
D
Antibiotics for Preterm Premature Rupture of Membranes
Question 27
A woman presents with leakage of fluid per vaginum and meconium stained liquor at 34 weeks of gestation. The most likely organism causing infection would be:
A
Listeria monocytogenes
B
Toxoplasmosis
C
CMV
D
Herpes
Question 28
Which of the following interventions is not recommended in active management of third stage of Labour
A
Administration of Uterotonic within 1 minute of delivery
B
Immidiate Clamping, Cutting and Ligation of cord
C
Gentle massage of Uterus
D
Controlled Cord Traction
Question 29
Active Management of Third Stage of Labor includes all of the following, Except:
A
Oxytocin Injection
B
Ergometrine Injection
C
Controlled cord traction
D
Gentle Massage of Uterus
Question 30
All of the following maneuvers are used in shoulder dystocia, except
A
Woods Corkscrew Maneuver
B
Mc Roberts Maneuver
C
Suprapubic Pressure
D
Mauriceau - Smellie Veit Maneuver
Question 31
All of the following interventions are recommended to prevent mother to child transmission of HIV, Except
A
Avoid Ergometrine in third stage of labour
B
Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART)
C
Elective Caesarian section
D
Intrapartum Zidovudine
Question 32
Causes of primary amenorrhea are all except:
A
Rokitansky synrome
B
Sheehan syndrome
C
Kollman syndrome
D
Turner syndrome
Question 33
A lady with placenta previa delivered a baby.She had excessive bleeding and shock.After resuscitation most likely complication would be:
A
Galactorrhoea
B
Diabetes insipidus
C
Loss of menstruation
D
Cushing's syndrome
Question 34
The presence of increased levels of which of the following in amniotic fluid is an indicator of open neural tube defect in the fetus?
A
Phosphatidylesterase
B
Acety1 cholinesterase
C
Pseudocholineesterase
D
Butyrylcholineesterase
Question 35
A 35 yr old P 3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy.Best treatment will be:
A
Cryosurgery
B
Conization
C
LEEP
D
Hysterectomy
Question 36
A pregnant lady had no complaints but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in first trimester.She was prescribed spiramycin but She was non-compliant.Baby was born with hydrocephalous and intraccrebral calcification.Which of these is likely cause?
A
Toxoplasmosis
B
CMV
C
Cryptococcus
D
Rubella
Question 37
Which of the following treatments for menorrhagia is not supported by evidence?
A
Tranexamic acid
B
Ethamsylate
C
Combined OCP
D
Progesterone
Question 38
A pregnent female at 35 wks of pregnancy is disgnosed with SLE. Drugs that can be used to treat are all except:
A
Corticosteroids
B
Sulphasalazine
C
Methotrexate
D
Hydroxychloroquine
Question 39
Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except:
A
Monochorionic,monoamniotic twins
B
Mentoanterior
C
Extended breech
D
Dichorionic twins with first vertex & second breech
Question 40
A lady undergoes total radical hysterectomy for stage Ib Ca cervix.It was found that Ca extends to lower part of body of uterus and uper part of cervix.Next step of management will be
A
Chemotherapy
B
Radiotherapy
C
Chemoradiation
D
Follow-up
Question 41
A 35 yr old woman presents with primary infertility & palpable pelvic mass.Her CA-125 level is 0 U/ml.Diagnosis is:
A
Ovarian Ca
B
Endometrioma
C
Tuberculosis
D
Borderline ovarian tumor
Question 42
Ideal contraceptive for lactating mothers is:
A
Barrier method
B
Combined OCP
C
Lactational amenorrhoea
D
Progesterone only pill
Question 43
Test for ovarian reserve:
A
LH
B
LH/FSH ratio
C
FSH
D
Estradiol
Question 44
At what gestational age should a pregnancy with cholestasis of pregnancy be terminated:
A
34 weeks
B
36 weeks
C
38 weeks
D
40 weeks
Question 45
Clomphene citrate-True statement s:
A
Enclomiphene is anti estrogenic
B
Increases pregnancy rate 3 times as compared to placebo
C
Incidence of twin pregnancy is 5-6%
D
It has been shown to increase fertility in oligospermic males in randomized controlled trials
Question 46
Pain of ovarian carcinoma is referred to:
A
Back of thigh
B
Gluteal region
C
Anterior surface of thigh
D
Medial surface of thigh
Question 47
All are seen in gestational diabetes except:
A
Previous macrosomic baby
B
Obesity
C
Malformations
D
Polyhydramnios
Question 48
the best period of gestation of carry out chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is?
A
8-10 weeks
B
10-12 weeks
C
12-14 weeks
D
14-16 weeks
Question 49
Which one of the following biochemical parameters is the most sensitive to detect open spina bifida?
A
Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein
B
Amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein
C
Amniotic fluid acety1 cholinesterase
D
Amniotic fluid glucohexaminase
Question 50
The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is:
A
Interspinous diameter
B
Diagonal conjugate
C
True conjugate
D
Intertuberous dimeter
Question 51
All are the causes of intrauterine growth retardation except:
A
Anemia
B
Pregnancy induced hypertension
C
Maternal heart disease
D
Gestational diabetes
Question 52
All are the risk factors associated with macrosomia except:
A
Maternal obesity
B
Prolonged Pregnancy
C
Previous large infant
D
Short Stature
Question 53
Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly:
A
Coarctation of aorta
B
Fallot's tetrology
C
Ebstein's anomaly
D
Transposition of great arteries
Question 54
Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy?
A
The rate of congenital malformation is increased in the offspring of women wiht epilepsy
B
Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of women
C
Breast feeding is safe with most anticonvulsants
D
Folic acid supplementation may reduce the riskof neural tube defect
Question 55
Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy:
A
Hepatitis-B
B
Cholera
C
Rabies
D
Yellow fever
Question 56
Risk of preterm delivery is increased if cervical length is:
A
2.5 cm
B
3.0 cm
C
3.5 cm
D
4.0 cm
Question 57
Misoprostol has been found to be effective in all of the following except:
A
Missed abortion
B
Induction of labour
C
Menorrhagia
D
Prevention of post-partum hemorrhage(PPH)
Question 58
Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease:
A
IUCD
B
Depoprovera
C
Diaphragm
D
Oral contraceptive pills
Question 59
The most common side effect of IUD insertion is:
A
Bleeding
B
Pain
C
Pelvic infection
D
Ectopic pregnancy
Question 60
Aspermia is the term used to describe:
A
Absence of semen
B
Absence of sperm in ejaculate
C
Absence of sperm motilty
D
Occurrence of abnormal sperm
Question 61
All of the following appear to decrease hot flushes in menopausal women except:
A
Androgens
B
Raloxifene
C
Isofiavones
D
Tibolone
Question 62
The following drug is not helpful in the treatment of ectopic pregnancy:
A
Methottexate
B
Misoprostol
C
Actinomycin-D
D
RU-486
Question 63
The highest incidence of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease is in:
A
Australia
B
Asia
C
North America
D
Western Europe
Question 64
The most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea in India is:
A
Ensometrial tuberculosis
B
Premature ovarian failure
C
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
D
Sheehan's syndrome
Question 65
Patients of Rectovaginal fistula should be initially treated wiht:
A
Colostomy
B
Primary repair
C
Colporrhaphy
D
Anterior resection
Question 66
The most common pure gem cell tumor of the ovary is:
A
Choriocarcinoma
B
Dysgerminoma
C
Embryonal cell tumor
D
Malignant Terstoma
Question 67
In a case of Dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised:
A
Serum HCG
B
Serum alphafetoprotein
C
Serum lactic dehydrogenase
D
Serum inhibin
Question 68
Progesterone of choice in emergency contraception is:
A
Norethisterone
B
Medroxy progesterone
C
Desogestrel
D
Levonorgestrel
Question 69
Prelabour pains are mediated through:
A
T[sub]11[/sub]-T[sub]12[/sub]
B
T[sub]2[/sub]-L[sub]3[/sub]
C
S[sub]1[/sub]-S[sub]3[/sub]
D
L[sub]3[/sub]-L[sub]4[/sub]
Question 70
Genital warts in pregnancy treatment is:
A
Podophylin
B
Salicylic acid & lactic acid
C
Cryotherapy
D
Imiquinod
Question 71
HPV vaccine is?
A
Monovalent
B
Bivalent
C
Quadrivalent
D
Both bivalent and Quadrivalent
Question 72
Impaired ciliary motility in:
A
Nuvian syndrome
B
Kartagener's syndrome
C
-
D
-
Question 73
Clue cell seen in?
A
Bacterial vaginosis
B
Candida
C
Trichomonas vaginalis
D
-
Question 74
All of following are true bout MRKH(Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser) syndrome except:
A
Absent uterus
B
Absent cervis
C
Absent ovary
D
Absent vagina
Question 75
Most sensitive diagnosis test of ectopic pregnancy:
A
Transvaginal USG
B
Culdocentesis
C
MRI
D
Serial monitoring of bita-HCG
Question 76
A pregnant women,previous LSCS with hematuria.Diagnosis is:
A
Impending scar rupture of uterus
B
Prolonged labour
C
Uretreral injury
D
Cystitis
Question 77
A 20 years female present primary amenorrhea,absent breast,hypoplastic uterus.Most prabable diagnosis is?
A
Turner's syndrome
B
Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
C
Meyer Rokitansky kuster Hauser syndrome
D
Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Question 78
35 year old female with post coital bleeding.Next step is?
A
Pap smear with clinical examination
B
Visual examination with lugo L iodine
C
Visual examination with acetic acid
D
Colposcopy directed biopsy
Question 79
Patient with occipito posterior position.What is the management:
A
Wait and watch for progress of labour
B
Cesarian section
C
Oxytocin influsion
D
Rupture of membranes
Question 80
A pregnant patient with prosthetic valve should be switched to heparin in:
A
32 weeks
B
36 weeks
C
40 weeks
D
Onset of labour
Question 81
Cell exner bodies seen in:
A
Granulosa cell tumor
B
Endodermal sinus cell tumour
C
Ovarian fibroma
D
Teratoma
Question 82
Uterine blood flow at term is:
A
50-70 ml/min
B
100-150 ml/min
C
175-200 ml/min
D
500-750 ml/min
Question 83
Drug which interferes or hampers the effectiveness of OCP are all except:
A
Aspirin
B
Tetracycline
C
rifampicin
D
Phenytoin
Question 84
Tocolytic of choice in heart disease:
A
Nifedepine
B
Atosiban
C
MgSo[sub]4[/sub]
D
Salbutamol
Question 85
The following hormone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome:
A
17-0H progesterone
B
Follicular stimulating hormone
C
Luteinizing hormone
D
Thyroid stimulating hormone
Question 86
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian disease?
A
Elevated LH hormone
B
Can cause infertility
C
May be associated with abnormal glucose tolerance test
D
Results in postdated pregnancy
Question 87
A 15-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breasts are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is:
A
Turner's syndrome
B
Mullerian agenesis
C
Testicular feminization syndrome
D
Premature ovarian failure
Question 88
The treatment for a case of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is:
A
Estrogens
B
Antiandrogen
C
ACTh
D
Cortisone
Question 89
In which of the following genital tract malignancy, the risk of metastasis to ovary is the least?
A
Carcinoma cervix
B
Carcinoma endometrium
C
Carcinoma fallopian tube
D
Uterine sarcoma
Question 90
The investigation of choice in a 55-year-old postmenopausal woman who has presented with postmenopausal bleeding is:
A
Pap smear
B
Fractional curettage
C
Transvaginal ultrasound
D
Ca-125 estimation
Question 91
In a suspected of ovarian cancer, imaging work-up is required for all of the following information, except:
A
Defection of adenexal lesion
B
Characterization of the lesion
C
Staging
D
Assess respectability
Question 92
Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury?
A
Vaginal hysterectomy
B
Abdominal hysterectomy
C
Wertheim's hysterectomy
D
Anterior colporraphy
Question 93
A 40-years-old woman presented to the gynecologist with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervix on the speculum examination. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was made based upon all of the following findings on microscopy except:
A
Abundance of gram variable coccobacilli
B
Absence of Lactobacilli
C
Abundance of polymorphs
D
Present of clue cells
Question 94
The most common cause of tubal block in India is:
A
Gonorrhea infection
B
Chlamydia infection
C
Tuberculosis
D
Bacterial vaginosis
Question 95
All of the following mechanisms of action of oral contraceptive pill are true, except
A
Inhibition of ovulation
B
Prevention of fertilization
C
Interference with implantation of fertilized ovum
D
Interference with placental functioning
Question 96
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system:
A
There is increased incidence of menorrhagia
B
This system can be used as hormone replacement therapy
C
This method is useful for the treatment of endometerial hyperplasia
D
Irregular uterine bleeding can be problem initially.
Question 97
All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk of upper genital tract infection in users of progestin - releasing IUDs, except:
A
Reduced retrograde menstruation
B
Decreased ovulation
C
Thickened cervical mucus
D
Decidual changes in the endometrium
Question 98
Emergency contraception prevents pregnancy by all of the following mechanisms, except:
A
Delaying/inhibiting ovulation
B
Inhibiting fertilization
C
Preventing implantation of the fertilized egg
D
Interrupting an early pregnancy
Question 99
Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following, except:
A
Amniotic fluid
B
Maternal blood
C
Chrionic villi
D
Fetal blood
Question 100
Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?
A
Anencephaly
B
Inencephaly
C
Microcephaly
D
Holoprosencephaly
Question 101
The best way of diagnosing Trisomy-21 during second trimester of pregnancy is:
A
Triple marker estimation
B
Nuchal skin fold thickness measurement
C
Chorionic villus sampling
D
Amniocentesis
Question 102
At what period does tuberculosis flare up most commonly in a pregnant patient?
A
First trimester
B
Second trimester
C
Third trimester
D
Puerperium
Question 103
Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
A
Serous cystadenoma
B
Mucinous cystadenoma
C
Dermoid cyst
D
Theca lutein cyst
Question 104
Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase in pregnancy?
A
Glioma
B
Pituitary adenoma
C
Meningioma
D
Neurofibroma
Question 105
Which vitamin deficient is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy?
A
Vitamin B6
B
Vitamin B12
C
Vitamin A
D
Folic acid
Question 106
A primigravida presents to casually at 32 weeks gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by:
A
Immediate cesarean section
B
Immediate induction of labor
C
Tocolytic therapy
D
Magnesium sulphate therapy
Question 107
The following complications during pregnancy increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) except:
A
Hypertension
B
Macrosomia
C
Twin pregnancy
D
Hydramnios
Question 108
Indicators of impending uterine rupture during labour include all of the following except
A
Fetal distress
B
Hematuria
C
Fresh bleeding per vaginum
D
Passage of meconium
There are 108 questions to complete.
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Atul Tiwari (21 Posts)

Medical Officer, Pratapgarh (Raj)


  

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